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GeneralEpitaxy
6th Feb 2017 13:49 UTCThe Evje og Hornnes geomuseum, Fennefoss Expert
"Some authors[9] consider that overgrowths of a second generation of the same mineral species should also be considered as epitaxy, and this is common terminology for semiconductor scientists who induce epitaxic growth of a film with a different doping level on a semiconductor substrate of the same material. For naturally produced minerals, however, the International Mineralogical Association (IMA) definition requires that the two minerals be of different species.[10]"
I just made a picture of what I believed to be an authentic epitaxy:
But since it is an epitaxy of albite on an older generation albite, it would therefore not be considered to be an epitaxy.
(The orange-brown crust is supposed to be microcline)
Anybody who can comment on this?
Ron Werner
Norway
7th Feb 2017 01:26 UTCMartin Rich Expert
In my opinion, it should named as parallel grown albite of a 2nd generation. Somewehre I heard the term "auto epitaxy" :-S
Martin
7th Feb 2017 13:48 UTCHarold Moritz 🌟 Expert
7th Feb 2017 14:14 UTCThe Evje og Hornnes geomuseum, Fennefoss Expert
Ron
7th Feb 2017 17:40 UTCGregg Little 🌟
7th Feb 2017 17:49 UTCUwe Kolitsch Manager
(...)
Homoepitaxy is a kind of epitaxy performed with only one material, in which a crystalline film is grown on a substrate or film of the same material. This technology is used to grow a film which is more pure than the substrate and to fabricate layers having different doping levels. In academic literature, homoepitaxy is often abbreviated to "homoepi".
(...)
[Note that this term doesn't seem to be used very much in mineralogy.]
See also
https://www.mindat.org/mesg-62-332425.html
9th Feb 2017 11:53 UTCThe Evje og Hornnes geomuseum, Fennefoss Expert
I see that a choice has been made, but I don't see the argumentation behind this choice.
(In the example I showed, the first generation albite belongs to the magmatic stage of the pegmatite, while the second generation albite belongs to the hydrothermal stage. I don't have any numbers, but I would assume the first stage to have a slightly different composition with a higher An content.)
Ron
9th Feb 2017 12:18 UTCJohan Kjellman Expert
epitaxy infers different structures but with one structural property in common where they can "connect"
cheers
9th Feb 2017 14:47 UTCDavid Von Bargen Manager
IUCr and IMA definition
"K. Epitaxy is the phenomenon of mutual orientation of two
crystals of different species, with two-dimensional lattice
control (mesh in common), usually, though not necessarily,
resulting in an overgrowth. (Vote 7-0 in favor.)
Comment: Examples of epitactic overgrowths are NaNO3
on calcite, alkali halides on muscovite, bixbyite on topaz,
arsenolite on fluorite, boehmite on albite, Ni on periclase,
uraninite on columbite, etc. "
http://journals.iucr.org/a/issues/1977/04/00/a14203/a14203.pdf
10th Feb 2017 08:53 UTCThe Evje og Hornnes geomuseum, Fennefoss Expert
Not necessarily so. It would again be a matter of definition. The overgrowth I showed on the picture represents two clearly seperate stages of growth, with the second one consisting of many individual crystals.
Ron
10th Feb 2017 13:45 UTCHarold Moritz 🌟 Expert
I have to agree with the JCN. Its a matter of recognition and of degree. The problem with calling overgrowths of the same mineral epitaxy is first having to recognize it has occurred (not a problem with two different minerals) and then having to decide on where to draw the line between what could be partial to complete overgrowth. If a scepter quartz continued to grow it would possibly cover the "stem" crystal entirely, leaving perhaps a phantom inside. Where does one stop calling it epitaxy in this continuum? Is every crystal with a phantom inside to be considered epitaxial?
10th Feb 2017 14:02 UTCThe Evje og Hornnes geomuseum, Fennefoss Expert
Maybe the case you describe is exactly where you need to draw the line.
But when there is a clear transition from one stage of crystallisation to another, like in the example I presented, I would be inclined to call it epitaxy.
In your example it is a proces with a pause in between two stages, while in my case there are two completely different types of processes.
Just brain-storming...
Ron
10th Feb 2017 14:22 UTCHarold Moritz 🌟 Expert
But can that difference in process always be recognized by anyone? It is always obvious when two minerals are involved. Perhaps think of the definition as describing a result rather than a process.
In any case, nature does what it does and doesnt care what we call it! ;-)
10th Feb 2017 14:26 UTCThe Evje og Hornnes geomuseum, Fennefoss Expert
10th Feb 2017 14:34 UTCAlfred L. Ostrander
So, even if this photo is an oriented growth of albite over albite during two seperate stages, it does not entirely fit the definition of epitaxy and should not be considered an authentic epitaxy.
My take on what David said runs along the line that once a definition gets compromised, any thing that someone thinks is epitaxial can be called that regardless of the definition. The definition is then rendered nearly useless. So, the definition itself becomes the decisive argument against calling this specimen epitaxial. That is what definitions do. They clearly define the situation at hand.
10th Feb 2017 20:14 UTCGregg Little 🌟
11th Feb 2017 13:29 UTCJohan Kjellman Expert
Since, from my understanding, everybody are OK with the definition of point K in the JCN document, just a comment on the adjectival form of epitaxy from under point M in the same document (my italics/fat/underlining):
M. Adjectival forms of the terms defined under I through L
above may end in -tactic or -taxic, but not in -axial. For
example, epitactic and epitaxic are acceptable, but epitaxial
is not acceptable.* (Vote 7-0 in favor.)
* Editorial note: Although -tactic has been used throughout this
report, the Editors of Acta Crystallographiea and Journal of Applied
Crystallography prefer -taxic for etymological reasons (Schneider,
1963).
cheers
11th Feb 2017 17:23 UTCAlfred L. Ostrander
13th Feb 2017 10:59 UTCNiels Brouwer
When comparing the literary usage of the three different versions, it seems that -tactic is used roughly three times as often. Also, -tactic comes into use much earlier (1840s) than -taxic (1960s). However, if we compare it with the 'unacceptable' -taxial variant (first used in the 1950s), it seems to completely dwarf the other two.
I know it's just some simple statistics, but it appears that very few authors have taken the journal's etymological advice to heart. ;)
13th Feb 2017 13:33 UTCAlfred L. Ostrander
Language can be funny: if the plural of mouse is mice why isn't the plural of house hice? What are you gonna do!
13th Feb 2017 16:25 UTCTimothy Greenland
Cheers
Tim
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